I have a 43 year old man with CKD (stage IV, prior Cr ~3), treated HCV and HIV (on Biktarvy) who presented after a year w/o follow-up and found to have progressive renal failure, Cr 11. Admitted for initiation of HD. Reports compliance with Biktarvy (started a year ago, reportedly transitioned from Triumeq because wanted smaller pill). VL now 15K. Nephrology worried that tenofovir may have contributed to his progressive kidney disease. I'm concerned he didn't suppress on Biktarvy despite the m184V (no prior INSTI genotype available). Should we be worried about INSTI resistance (though did ok on Triumeq)? Repeat genotype pending, but want to start therapy. That being said, the recommended regimen is DTG+DRV/c, over regimens that includes either DOR or RPV. Do we think we can away w/o a third agent?
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